/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Modern English translations of Plato's accounts of Atlantis in the Timaeus and Critias, regularly state "9,000 years" as the date before Plato's time of writing. How has this date been calibrated from Plato's ancient Greek into the standard modern English translation as "9,000 years"?
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How did feudalism end in Britain? Was it an instant like in Russia in 1861, or was it incremental? What "growing pains" were suffered by the lords and serfs and society at large by this change?
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Did Gregor Strasser oppose Hitler's relationships with industry like IG Farben, Krupp, and Daimler-Benz?
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Regarding a recent legislative proposal in the US Senate that would entail a 60-day congressional review period of any US-Iranian agreements, is there any precedent for similar Congressional involvement in foreign agreements?
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